Show that there does not exist a Lebesgue measurable subset \(A \subset \mathbb {R}\) such that for every interval \((a, b) \subset \mathbb {R}\) we have \[ m(A \cap (a, b)) = \frac {b-a}{2} \] where \(m\) denotes Lebesgue measure.
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Fall 2021 • Question 3