Let \(X_1,\ldots ,X_n\) denote an independent sample from an exponential distribution with [unknown] mean \(\theta >0\). What does the Neyman–Pearson lemma say about \(H_0:\theta =1\) versus \(H_a:\theta =2\)? Explain carefully, and identify explicitly the rejection region.
Question
Math 6010 • Linear Models
Spring 2010 • Question 8