Prove or disprove: Let \[ \Omega =\{z:\ |\operatorname {Re}(z)|<1\text { and }|\operatorname {Im}(z)|<1\}. \] If \(f:\mathbb D\to \Omega \) is a biholomorphism so that \(f(z)\) is real for all real \(z\in \mathbb D\) and \(f(0)=0\), then \[ f(iz)=i f(z). \]
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Fall 2018 • Question 8