Prove or disprove: If \((X,\mathcal M,\mu )\) is a measure space, \(A_1,\ldots \) are measurable, and \[ \sum _{i=1}^{\infty }\mu (A_i)^2<\infty , \] then \[ \mu \left (\bigcap _{m=1}^{\infty }\bigcup _{i=m}^{\infty } A_i\right )=0. \]
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Fall 2017 • Question 1