Let \(A\), \(B\), and \(C\) be Banach spaces and let \(f:A\to C\) and \(g:B\to C\) be bounded linear maps. Suppose that \(g\) is one to one and \(f(A)\subset g(B)\). Prove that there is a bounded linear map \(h:A\to B\) such that \(b=h(a)\) if and only if \(f(a)=g(b)\).
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Fall 1994 • Question 4