We say that \(f_n\to f\) in measure if for all \(\epsilon >0\) there exists an \(N>0\) such that if \(n\ge N\) then \[ \mu \bigl (\{x\mid |f_n(x)-f(x)|>\epsilon \}\bigr )<\epsilon . \] Show that if \(f_n\to f\) pointwise and \(\mu (X)<\infty \) then \(f_n\to f\) in measure.
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
2006 • Question 2