Let \(\mu \) be a measure on \(X\). Let \(f_1\ge f_2\ge \cdots f_n\ge \cdots \ge 0\) be a sequence of measurable functions. Assume \(\lim _{n\to \infty }\int _X f_n\,d\mu =0\). Show that \(f_n(x)\to 0\) a.e.
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
1998 • Question 2