Let \(f(z)\) be analytic in a deleted neighborhood of \(z=a\) and \[ \lim _{z\to a}(z-a)f(z)=0. \] Does it mean that \(f(z)\) has a removable singularity at \(a\)? If so, prove it. If not, give a counterexample.
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Summer 2016 • Question 7