If \(f:\mathbb R\to \mathbb R\) is Lipschitz and \(A\) is \(\lambda \)-measurable, then \(f(A)\) is measurable. Recall that a function is Lipschitz if there exists \(C\) so that \[ d(f(x),f(y))\le C\,d(x,y) \] for all \(x,y\in \mathbb R\).
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Summer 2016 • Question 2