Show that if \(f:\mathbb D\to \mathbb C\) is holomorphic and \(f'(0)\ne 0\) then there is a neighborhood of \(0\) where \(f\) is injective. Do not use the inverse function theorem.
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Spring 2019 • Question 9
Question
Spring 2019 • Question 9
Show that if \(f:\mathbb D\to \mathbb C\) is holomorphic and \(f'(0)\ne 0\) then there is a neighborhood of \(0\) where \(f\) is injective. Do not use the inverse function theorem.