Does there exist \(f:\mathbb D\to \mathbb C\) holomorphic so that \[ f\left (\frac {1}{n}\right )f\left (\frac {1}{n+1}\right )=\frac {1}{n} \] for all \(n\in \{2,3,\ldots \}\)?
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Fall 2015 • Question 8
Question
Fall 2015 • Question 8
Does there exist \(f:\mathbb D\to \mathbb C\) holomorphic so that \[ f\left (\frac {1}{n}\right )f\left (\frac {1}{n+1}\right )=\frac {1}{n} \] for all \(n\in \{2,3,\ldots \}\)?