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Math 6210 • Real Analysis

Spring 2011 • Question 5

Let \((X,\mu )\) be a measure space, let \(\{f_n\}\) be a sequence of nonnegative integrable functions, and assume there exists an integrable function \(f\) such that \(f(x)=\lim _{n\to \infty } f_n(x)\) almost everywhere. Further assume \[ \tag {1} \lim _{n\to \infty }\int _X f_n\,d\mu =\int _X f\,d\mu . \] Prove that \[ \lim _{n\to \infty }\int _X |f_n-f|\,d\mu =0. \] Show by example that this need not hold if the assumption (1) is omitted.

Raw LaTeX

Let \((X,\mu)\) be a measure space, let \(\{f_n\}\) be a sequence of
nonnegative integrable functions, and assume there exists an integrable
function \(f\) such that \(f(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty} f_n(x)\) almost everywhere.
Further assume
\[
\tag{1}
\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_X f_n\,d\mu=\int_X f\,d\mu.
\]
Prove that
\[
\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_X |f_n-f|\,d\mu=0.
\]
Show by example that this need not hold if the assumption (1) is omitted.