Decide whether the following statement is true or false. If true, prove it, if false, provide a counterexample.
Let \(\{f_n\}\) be a sequence of measurable functions (with respect to Lebesgue measure) with \(0\le f_n\le 1\) such that \(\int _0^1 f_n(x)\,dx\to 0\). Then \(f_n\to 0\) almost everywhere.