Either prove the following statement if true, or prove that it is false by providing a counterexample. Let \(\{f_n\}\) be a sequence in \(L^2([0,1])\) such that \(\lVert f_n\rVert _2\to 0\). Then \(f_n\to 0\) almost everywhere.
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Fall 2009 • Question 5