Let \(\{f_n\}\), \(f\) be measurable functions on a measure space \((X,\mu )\) such that \[ f_1\ge f_2\ge \cdots \ge f\ge 0 \] Suppose that \(\int f_n\,d\mu \to \int f\,d\mu \) and that \(f_1\) is integrable. Prove that \(f_n\to f\) almost everywhere. Show by example, that this conclusion may be false if \(f_1\) is not integrable.
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Fall 2009 • Question 1