Let \(T:C_0(\mathbb R)\to C_0(\mathbb R)\) be the translation operator defined by \((T.f)(x)=f(x+1)\). Show that there is no non-zero bounded linear functional \(\Phi :C_0(\mathbb R)\to \mathbb C\) invariant under \(T\), i.e. such that \(\Phi \) satisfies \[ \Phi (f)=\Phi (Tf). \]
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Fall 2008 • Question 5