Let \(H\) be a Hilbert space with inner product written as \(\langle f,g\rangle \), and let \(f,g\in H\) be two non-zero elements. Show that \(f=zg\) for some \(z\in \mathbb C^*\) if and only if there exists no \(h\in H\) with \[ \langle f,h\rangle =1 \quad \text {and}\quad \langle g,h\rangle =0. \]
Question
Math 6210 • Real Analysis
Fall 2008 • Question 3