Let \(X_1,X_2,\ldots \) be independent random variables with distribution functions \(F_1,F_2,F_3,\ldots \). Let \(Y=\sup _{1\le i<\infty }X_i\).
(a) Show that \(\mathbb {P}\{Y<\infty \}\) is 0 or 1 depending on whether \(\sum _{1\le i<\infty }(1-F_i(x))\) converges for some \(x\). (5 points)
(b) Show that if \(\mathbb {P}\{Y<\infty \}=1\), then \(\prod _{1\le i<\infty }F_i(x)\) converges for all \(x\) and it is the distribution function of \(Y\).