Suppose \(\{E_1,E_2,\ldots \}\) is a sequence of measurable (otherwise arbitrary) events. Suppose \(\{F_1,F_2,\ldots \}\) is another sequence of measurable events also totally independent of all of the \(E_i\)’s. Assume the following:
(a) \(\mathbb {P}(E_k\text {, infinitely often})=1\);
(b) there exists some \(p>0\), such that for all \(k\ge 1\), \(\mathbb {P}(F_k)\ge p\).
Prove: \(\mathbb {P}(E_k\cap F_k\text {, infinitely often})\ge p>0\). (10 points)