For \(n=1,2,\ldots \), let \(X_n\) have density \[ f_n(x):=\frac {n}{\pi (1+n^2x^2)},\qquad -\infty <x<\infty . \] (a) Does \(X_n\) converge to 0 in probability?
(b) Does \(X_n\) converge to 0 in \(L^1(\mathbb {P})\)?
(c) If \(X_1,X_2,\ldots \) are independent, does \(X_n\) converge to 0 a.s.?