Prove that whenever \(X_n\Rightarrow X\) and \(Y_n\to c\) in probability for a non-random \(c>0\), then \(X_n/Y_n\Rightarrow c^{-1}X\). Use this to prove the following: If \(\xi _1,\xi _2,\ldots \) are i.i.d. with \(\mathbb {E}[\xi _1]=\mu \) and \(\operatorname {Var}(\xi _1)=\sigma ^2\) then \[ \frac {S_n-n\mu }{\sqrt {\sum _{i=1}^{n}(\xi _i-\bar {\xi }_n)^2}} \Rightarrow N(0,1). \] where \(S_n=\xi _1+\cdots +\xi _n\), and \(\bar {\xi }_n=S_n/n\).
Question
Math 6010 • Linear Models
2005 • Question 8