Suppose \(X_1,X_2,\ldots \) have common mean \(\mu \) and variances \(\sigma _1^2,\sigma _2^2,\ldots \). Prove that if \(\sup _n\sigma _n^2<\infty \) and \(\lim _{|i-j|\to \infty }\mathbb {E}[X_iX_j]=0\), then \((X_1+\cdots +X_n)/n\) converges to \(\mu \) in probability.
Question
Math 6010 • Linear Models
2005 • Question 7