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Math 6010 • Linear Models

Fall 2014 • Question 7

Suppose \(f:[0,\infty )\to \mathbb {R}\) is bounded and measurable, and \(f(x)=0\) for all \(x\geq 2\).

(a) Prove that if \(X_1,X_2,\ldots \) are independent, all distributed uniformly in the interval \((0,1)\), then \[ \frac {1}{n}\sum _{j=0}^{n} f\left (\frac {j+X_j}{n}\right ) \xrightarrow {\mathbb {P}} \int _0^{\infty } f(x)\,dx \qquad \text {as } n\to \infty . \]

(b) (Extra credit) Deduce from this the following version of Riemann sums for Lebesgue integrals [Chaterjee’s theorem]: There exists a sequence \(\{\delta _{j,n};\ 0\leq j\leq n,\ n\geq 1\}\) of real numbers in \((0,1)\) such that \[ \lim _{n\to \infty }\frac {1}{n}\sum _{j=0}^{n} f\left (\frac {j+\delta _{j,n}}{n}\right ) = \int _0^{\infty } f(x)\,dx. \]

Raw LaTeX

Suppose \(f:[0,\infty)\to\R\) is bounded and measurable, and
\(f(x)=0\) for all \(x\geq2\).

\textbf{(a)} Prove that if \(X_1,X_2,\ldots\) are independent, all distributed
uniformly in the interval \((0,1)\), then
\[
  \frac{1}{n}\sum_{j=0}^{n}
  f\left(\frac{j+X_j}{n}\right)
  \xrightarrow{\Prob}
  \int_0^{\infty} f(x)\,dx
  \qquad\text{as } n\to\infty.
\]

\textbf{(b)} (Extra credit) Deduce from this the following version of Riemann
sums for Lebesgue integrals [Chaterjee's theorem]: There exists a sequence
\(\{\delta_{j,n};\ 0\leq j\leq n,\ n\geq1\}\) of real numbers in \((0,1)\) such
that
\[
  \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{j=0}^{n}
  f\left(\frac{j+\delta_{j,n}}{n}\right)
  =
  \int_0^{\infty} f(x)\,dx.
\]