Let \(X_1,X_2,\ldots \) be i.i.d. uniform\((0,2)\), and put \(M_n:=X_1X_2\cdots X_n\) for each \(n\geq 1\). Show that \(\{M_n\}_{n=1}^{\infty }\) is a martingale. What does the martingale convergence theorem tell us about \(\lim _{n\to \infty }M_n\)? (In particular, evaluate this limit.)
Question
Math 6010 • Linear Models
Fall 2009 • Question 7