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Question

Math 6010 • Linear Models

Fall 2008 • Question 4

Let \(X_1,X_2,\ldots \) be independent random variables such that \[ X_n= \begin {cases} 1 & \text {with probability }(2n)^{-1},\\ 0 & \text {with probability }1-n^{-1},\\ -1 & \text {with probability }(2n)^{-1}. \end {cases} \] Let \(Y_1:=X_1\) and for \(n\geq 2\) \[ Y_n:= \begin {cases} X_n & \text {if }Y_{n-1}=0,\\ nY_{n-1}|X_n| & \text {if }Y_{n-1}\neq 0. \end {cases} \] Show that \(Y_n\) is a martingale with respect to \(\mathcal {F}_n:=\sigma (Y_1,Y_2,\ldots ,Y_n)\). Show that \(Y_n\) does not converge almost surely. Does \(Y_n\) converge in any way? Why does the martingale convergence theorem not apply?

Raw LaTeX

Let \(X_1,X_2,\ldots\) be independent random variables such that
\[
  X_n=
  \begin{cases}
    1 & \text{with probability }(2n)^{-1},\\
    0 & \text{with probability }1-n^{-1},\\
   -1 & \text{with probability }(2n)^{-1}.
  \end{cases}
\]
Let \(Y_1:=X_1\) and for \(n\geq2\)
\[
  Y_n:=
  \begin{cases}
    X_n & \text{if }Y_{n-1}=0,\\
    nY_{n-1}|X_n| & \text{if }Y_{n-1}\neq0.
  \end{cases}
\]
Show that \(Y_n\) is a martingale with respect to
\(\mathcal{F}_n:=\sigma(Y_1,Y_2,\ldots,Y_n)\). Show that \(Y_n\) does not converge
almost surely. Does \(Y_n\) converge in any way? Why does the martingale
convergence theorem not apply?

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