Let \(X_2,X_3,\ldots \) be independent random variables such that \[ \mathbb {P}(X_n=n)=\mathbb {P}(X_n=-n)=\frac {1}{2n\log n}, \qquad \mathbb {P}(X_n=0)=1-\frac {1}{n\log n}. \] Show that this sequence obeys the weak law but not the strong law of large numbers, in the sense that \(n^{-1}\sum _{i=1}^n X_i\) converges to 0 in probability but not almost surely.
Question
Math 6010 • Linear Models
Fall 2008 • Question 2