Let \(A_1,A_2,\ldots \), be a sequence of events (not necessarily independent) such that \[ \sum _{n=1}^{\infty }\mathbb {P}(A_n)=\infty \qquad \text {and}\qquad \mathbb {P}(A_n\cap A_m)\leq \mathbb {P}(A_n)\mathbb {P}(A_m) \quad \text {for } m\ne n. \] Prove that \(\mathbb {P}(A_n\text { i.o.})=1\) or provide a counterexample. Hint: Consider the mean and variance of \[ \sum _{i=1}^{n}\mathbf {1}_{A_i}. \]
Question
Math 6010 • Linear Models
Spring 2020 • Question 2