Let \(X\) and \(Y\) be two random variables such that \(\mathbb {P}(X\leq Y)=1\). Assume also that \(\mathbb {P}(X\leq x)\leq \mathbb {P}(Y\leq x)\) for all \(x\in \mathbb {R}\). Prove that \(\mathbb {P}(X=Y)=1\).
Question
Math 6010 • Linear Models
Spring 2019 • Question 3