Let \(X_n\) be a sequence of i.i.d. random variables. Assume that \(\mathbb {P}(X_n\to \infty )>0\). Prove that \(\mathbb {P}(X_0=\infty )=1\). Hint: first prove that \(\mathbb {P}(X_n\to \infty )=1\).
Question
Math 6010 • Linear Models
Spring 2019 • Question 1