Consider a one-dimensional simple symmetric random walk: \(S_n=x+\sum _{k=1}^{n}X_k\), where \(x\) is where the walk starts and \(\{X_n:n\geq 1\}\) are i.i.d. with \[ \mathbb {P}(X_n=1)=\mathbb {P}(X_n=-1)=1/2. \]
- Compute the probability that starting at \(x=0\) the random walk will hit \(-1\) before it hits \(b\in \mathbb {N}\). Deduce from this that the random walk is recurrent, i.e. starting at 0 the random walk will return to 0 with probability 1.
- Compute the mean time it takes the random walk to go from \(x=0\) to \(-1\). Deduce from this that the random walk is null recurrent, i.e. starting at 0, the mean time it takes to return to 0 is infinite.
(Hint: Prove first that when \(x=0\) both \(S_n\) and \(S_n^2-n\) are martingales.)