Assume that \(A_i\), \(i=1,2,\ldots \), are independent events. Prove that \[ \frac {1}{n}\sum _{i=1}^{n}\left (\mathbf {1}_{A_i}-\mathbb {P}(A_i)\right ) \] converges to zero in probability as \(n\to \infty \), where where \(\mathbf {1}_{A_i}\) is the indicator function of the event \(A_i\).
Question
Math 6010 • Linear Models
Fall 2019 • Question 1