Suppose \(\mathbb {P}\{X_1=0\}=\mathbb {P}\{X_1=1\}=1/2\) and for all integers \(n\geq 1\), \[ \mathbb {P}(X_{n+1}=1\mid \mathcal {F}_n) = 1-\mathbb {P}(X_{n+1}=0\mid \mathcal {F}_n) = \frac {S_n}{n}, \] where \(S_n:=X_1+\cdots +X_n\) and \(\mathcal {F}_n:=\sigma (\{X_1,\ldots ,X_n\})\). Prove that \(n^{-1}S_n=X_1\) almost surely for all \(n\geq 1\).
Question
Math 6010 • Linear Models
Fall 2016 • Question 10