Let \[ f(x)= \begin {cases} \frac {100}{n}, & x\ \text {rational},\ x=\frac {m}{n},\\ -2, & x\ \text {irrational}. \end {cases} \] Does the Riemann integral of \(f(x)\) over the interval \([-1,1]\) exist? If so, compute it.
Does the Lebesgue integral of \(f(x)\) over the interval \([-1,1]\) exist? If so, compute it.
Why is the Lebesgue integral used in defining the Hilbert space \(L^2[0,1]\), and not the Riemann integral?