Let \(M\) be a subset of a Hilbert space \(H\). Assume \(M\) is such that for any \(v,w\in H\) for which the equality \[ \langle v,x\rangle =\langle w,x\rangle \] holds for all \(x\in M\), we must have \(v=w\). Show that \(M^\perp =\{0\}\).
Question
Math 6420 • PDE
Fall 2016 • Question 3